General Knowledge (GK) is one of the most important sections in competitive exams like SSC, UPSC, Railway, Banking, Defence, and State PSCs. Every year, thousands of questions are asked from GK, making it a deciding factor in your final selection. To help you prepare in a smart and effective way, we have created a GK MCQ Quiz Series that covers all the important topics such as History, Geography, Polity, Economics, Science, Environment, and Current Affairs.
This quiz series is designed in a exam-oriented format, so that students can practice step by step and build a strong foundation. Each question is followed by the correct answer and a simple explanation, which not only improves your knowledge but also helps you understand the logic behind it.
Whether you are preparing for SSC CGL, CHSL, MTS, UPSC Prelims, Railway NTPC, Group D, Banking Exams, Delhi police or any other competitive exam, this series will boost your confidence and enhance your accuracy in the GK section.
So, get ready to test your knowledge, learn new facts, and strengthen your exam preparation with our General Knowledge MCQ Quiz Series.
Now, let’s begin the quiz.
Q1. With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. The word Cabinet was inserted in Article 352 by the 44th Amendment Act.
2. The Constitution mentions both the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet.
3. The Cabinet is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The term Cabinet
was indeed added by the 44th Amendment (1978) in Article 352; collective
responsibility applies to the Council, but by convention the Cabinet bears it
directly to the Lok Sabha.
Q2. Which of the following bodies is not a constitutional body?
a)
Finance Commission
b) National Commission for Women
c) Union Public Service Commission
d) Election Commission of India
Answer: b) National Commission for Women
Explanation: The NCW was created under an Act of Parliament
(1990), not by the Constitution.
Q3. With reference to Money Bills, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill.
2. Speaker’s decision on whether a Bill is Money Bill is final.
3. The President can return a Money Bill for reconsideration.
Select
the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: President cannot return a Money Bill; Speaker’s
certification is final and binding.
Q4. The Rule of Law, a basic feature of the Constitution, implies—
a)
Supremacy of Parliament over the Constitution
b) Equality before law and absence of arbitrary power
c) Judicial supremacy over executive decisions
d) Discretionary powers to the President
Answer: b) Equality before law and absence of arbitrary
power
Explanation: Propounded by A. V. Dicey, Rule of Law ensures
equality and legality of actions.
Q5. Which of the following are components of Aggregate Demand in the economy?
1. Private consumption expenditure
2. Gross domestic capital formation
3. Net exports
4. Government expenditure
Select
the correct code:
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Aggregate demand = C + I + G + (X–M).
Directive Principles of State Policy Fully Explained & MCQ.
Q6. Which of the following correctly defines ‘Quantitative Easing’ (QE)?
a)
RBI buying government securities to inject liquidity
b) Fiscal stimulus by direct cash transfers
c) Imposing limits on bank lending
d) Raising CRR and SLR to curb inflation
Answer: a) RBI buying government securities to inject
liquidity
Explanation: QE increases money supply when conventional
policy tools are exhausted.
Q7. Which of the following statements about Directive Principles of State Policy is correct?
a)
They are enforceable by the courts.
b) They are superior to Fundamental Rights.
c) They promote social and economic democracy.
d) They were borrowed from the U.S. Constitution.
Answer: c) They promote social and economic democracy
Explanation: DPSPs aim at welfare and social justice, inspired
by the Irish Constitution.
Q8. The Khilafat Movement (1919–1924) was launched to—
a)
oppose partition of Bengal
b) restore the Ottoman Caliphate
c) support Simon Commission
d) demand complete independence
Answer: b) restore the Ottoman Caliphate
Explanation: Led by Ali brothers; united Hindu–Muslim
political mobilization under Gandhi.
Q9. The Battle of Plassey (1757) marked the beginning of—
a)
French supremacy in India
b) British political control in India
c) End of Mughal power
d) Maratha confederacy
Answer: b) British political control in India
Explanation: Victory of Robert Clive over Nawab
Siraj-ud-Daulah established British rule in Bengal.
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding Nitrogen Cycle:
1. Denitrification converts nitrates into nitrogen gas.
2. Nitrogen fixation occurs through lightning and certain bacteria.
3. Ammonification converts ammonia into amino acids.
Which
are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Ammonification converts organic nitrogen →
ammonia, not the reverse.
Parliamentary
System in India | Features, Merits, Demerits.
Q11. Which of the following correctly describes Agenda 21?
a)
UN action plan on sustainable development
b) Protocol to reduce CFC emissions
c) Treaty on biodiversity conservation
d) Agreement on climate financing
Answer: a) UN action plan on sustainable development
Explanation: Adopted at Rio Earth Summit (1992).
Q12. The Hague Code of Conduct (HCoC) deals with—
a)
Missile proliferation
b) Money laundering
c) Human trafficking
d) Cyber warfare
Answer: a) Missile proliferation
Explanation: India joined HCoC in 2016 to prevent
ballistic-missile proliferation.
Q13. The G-20 was established in response to—
a)
Oil crisis of 1973
b) Asian financial crisis of 1997
c) Global financial crisis of 2008
d) COVID-19 pandemic
Answer: b) Asian financial crisis of 1997
Explanation: Formed in 1999 for finance ministers to
coordinate global economic policy.
Q14. Which of the following statements about Earth’s interior is correct?
a)
S-waves can pass through the liquid outer core.
b) P-waves cannot pass through the mantle.
c) Shadow zones provide evidence for Earth’s core.
d) The inner core is liquid.
Answer: c) Shadow zones provide evidence for Earth’s core
Explanation: P- and S-wave patterns reveal solid inner and
liquid outer core.
Q15. The Elastic Clause (Article 368) in the Constitution refers to—
a)
Amendment procedure
b) Judicial review
c) Emergency powers
d) Directive Principles
Answer: a) Amendment procedure
Explanation: It allows Parliament to amend the Constitution
within defined limits.
Universe, Galaxy & Earth Data – Geography
Notes for SSC, UPSC, Railway & Other Competitive Exam Aspirants.
Q16. In the context of nuclear reactors, the function of a moderator is to—
a)
absorb excess neutrons
b) slow down fast neutrons
c) initiate chain reaction
d) cool the reactor core
Answer: b) slow down fast neutrons
Explanation: Graphite or heavy water acts as moderator.
Q17. The Rupee–Rouble trade mechanism between India and Russia aims to—
a)
avoid dependence on US Dollar for trade
b) increase tourism between both nations
c) promote cryptocurrency payments
d) standardize shipping routes
Answer: a) avoid dependence on US Dollar for trade
Explanation: Facilitates trade settlement in national
currencies, bypassing SWIFT sanctions.
Q18. Which one of the following best describes carbon farming?
a)
Planting genetically modified crops
b) Adopting agricultural practices that capture carbon in soil
c) Using carbon fertilizers for higher yield
d) Converting forests into farmland
Answer: b) Adopting agricultural practices that capture
carbon in soil
Explanation: Carbon farming mitigates climate change through soil
carbon sequestration.
Q19. SWIFT network is related to—
a)
International money transfer messaging system
b) High-speed trading of stocks
c) Foreign exchange market regulator
d) Insurance settlement
Answer: a) International money transfer messaging system
Explanation: Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial
Telecommunication — secure messaging for banks.
Q20. The Bhutan–India Hydropower Cooperation primarily benefits India through—
a)
Import of cheap electricity
b) Access to mineral resources
c) Border security arrangements
d) Trade route diversification
Answer: a) Import of cheap electricity
Explanation: India finances and imports surplus
hydro-electricity from Bhutan.
Q21. With reference to Article 370, consider:
1. It granted special status to Jammu & Kashmir.
2. The article could be abrogated only through a constitutional amendment.
3. It restricted Parliament’s power to make laws for J&K.
Which
are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: It was abrogated in 2019 through Presidential
Order and Parliamentary resolution, not formal amendment.
Q22. The Chipko Movement is associated with—
a)
Soil conservation
b) Forest protection
c) Wildlife protection
d) Water harvesting
Answer: b) Forest protection
Explanation: 1973 Garhwal movement led by women hugging trees
to prevent felling.
Q23. International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC) connects India with—
a)
Europe via Iran and Russia
b) Southeast Asia via Myanmar
c) Africa via Suez Canal
d) Central Asia via Afghanistan
Answer: a) Europe via Iran and Russia
Explanation: Multi-modal trade route linking Mumbai–Bandar
Abbas–Moscow.
Q24. In context of Indian art and culture, Pattachitra painting is native to—
a)
Odisha
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Rajasthan
d) Kerala
Answer: a) Odisha
Explanation: Depicts mythological themes on cloth using
natural colors.
Q25. Which one of the following correctly describes ‘Mission LiFE’ launched by India?
a) A
global initiative promoting sustainable lifestyle practices
b) A national mission on electric mobility
c) A biodiversity conservation plan
d) A climate-finance mechanism under UNFCCC
Answer: a) A global initiative promoting sustainable
lifestyle practices
Explanation: Launched by PM Modi (2022) with UN support —
“Lifestyle for Environment”.
❓ Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
✅ Q1. Who should solve these General Knowledge MCQs?
Ans: These MCQs are ideal for students preparing for competitive exams in India like UPSC, SSC (CGL, CHSL, GD), Railway (RRB), Banking, Defence exams, and State-level PCS exams.
✅ Q2. Are these questions based on previous year papers?
Ans: Yes, all questions are inspired by actual previous year questions (PYQs) and framed at moderate to tough level to match the latest exam trends.
✅ Q3. How many MCQ parts will be available on this blog?
Ans: This is a 100-part MCQ quiz series, with 25 questions in each part, covering subjects like history, polity, science, economy, geography, current affairs, and more.
✅ Q4. How often is new content published?
Ans: We publish new MCQ sets regularly, so be sure to bookmark the site and subscribe to our free newsletter for updates.
✅ Q5. Can I download these quizzes in PDF format?
Ans: Yes, you can download till Part 30 as a printable
PDF for offline practice.
After that, you have to purchase the Premium Membership.
Check the membership Details and Benefits: (Click Here)
✅ Q6. Will you provide topic-wise or subject-wise MCQs too?
Ans: Yes, we are also working on topic-wise and subject-wise MCQ collections (like Polity MCQs, Science MCQs, Current Affairs MCQs, etc.) for focused practice.
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